C783 Project Management Essentials - Set 4 - Part 1

Correct Answer: To coordinate all aspects of the project

Project integration management focuses on ensuring all project elements work together effectively. Options A, C, and D pertain to specific areas of project management.

Correct Answer: Anyone who is impacted by or has an interest in the project

Stakeholders include all individuals or organizations affected by the project. Options A, C, and D are specific roles rather than the broader definition of stakeholders.

Correct Answer: SWOT Analysis

SWOT Analysis identifies strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats related to a project, which helps in understanding potential risks. The Fishbone Diagram (Option A) identifies causes, the Risk Register (Option C) records risks, and Monte Carlo Simulation (Option D) models risk scenarios.

Correct Answer: A document outlining the project's objectives and deliverables

The scope statement defines what is included and excluded in the project, detailing objectives and deliverables. Options B, C, and D refer to scheduling, stakeholder identification, and resource management.

Correct Answer: To organize project tasks into manageable components

The WBS breaks down the project into smaller, more manageable parts. Options A, C, and D are different project management activities not directly related to the WBS.

Correct Answer: It authorizes the project and provides the project manager with the authority

The Project Charter formally starts the project and grants authority to the project manager. Options A, C, and D refer to scope, quality, and stakeholder management, which are addressed in other documents.

Correct Answer: Planning

Risks are identified and assessed during the Planning phase to determine their impact and how to manage them. Executing (Option B), Monitoring and Controlling (Option C), and Closing (Option D) are later stages.

Correct Answer: Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed

RACI is a tool used to clarify roles and responsibilities within a project. Options B, C, and D are not standard project management acronyms.

Correct Answer: To oversee project management practices and standards within an organization

The PMO establishes and maintains project management standards and practices across the organization. Options A, C, and D involve project-specific tasks that PMOs may not perform.

Correct Answer: Project Management Plan

The Project Management Plan details the approach to monitor and control project performance. The Quality Management Plan (Option B) addresses quality control, the Scope Statement (Option C) defines scope, and the Risk Management Plan (Option D) focuses on risks.

Correct Answer: The sequence of activities that determines the minimum project duration

The critical path is the longest sequence of tasks that must be completed on time for the project to finish as scheduled) Options A, C, and D describe different aspects of project scheduling.

Correct Answer: The gradual expansion of project scope without formal approval

Scope creep refers to uncontrolled changes or continuous growth in project scope without adjustments to time, cost, or resources. Options A, C, and D do not accurately define scope creep.

Correct Answer: To identify and understand stakeholder needs and interests

Stakeholder analysis helps identify and understand the expectations and influence of stakeholders on the project. Options A, C, and D pertain to budgeting, task assignment, and scheduling.

Correct Answer: Control Scope

The Control Scope process monitors and manages changes to project scope. Developing the Charter (Option B) and validating scope (Option C) are different processes, while planning scope (Option D) establishes how scope will be managed)

Correct Answer: The value of completed work at a specific point in time

Earned Value quantifies the value of work actually completed) The total planned cost (Option A), actual costs (Option C), and completion dates (Option D) are different metrics in project management.

Correct Answer: Quality Management Plan

The Quality Management Plan outlines quality standards and metrics for measuring performance. The Project Scope Statement (Option B) defines scope, the Risk Register (Option C) tracks risks, and the Project Management Plan (Option D) encompasses overall project management strategies.

Correct Answer: To develop a detailed description of the project and its deliverables

Define Scope aims to articulate the project scope, including specific deliverables and requirements. Options A, B, and D involve cost estimation, scheduling, and stakeholder identification, respectively.

Correct Answer: Root Cause Analysis

Root Cause Analysis seeks to identify the fundamental reasons for problems. SWOT Analysis (Option A) evaluates strengths and weaknesses, Pareto Analysis (Option C) prioritizes issues, and Cost-Benefit Analysis (Option D) assesses financial viability.

Correct Answer: A point of reference for measuring project performance

A baseline is an approved version of a project plan used for comparison to actual performance. Options B, C, and D pertain to deliverables, stakeholders, and risk management.

Correct Answer: To define how risk management activities will be conducted

The Plan Risk Management process outlines the approach for managing risks throughout the project. Options A, C, and D are focused on identifying, assessing, and documenting risks.